Do all speak in tongues?
Question: “Do all speak with tongues?” (1 Corinthians 12:30) and “If any speak in tongues, let there be only two or at most three” (1 Corinthians 14:27) indicate that not all Christians are meant to speak in tongues? THERE IS A DIFFERENCE - ARE YOU LISTENING? Certainly, this has been used as an extensive argument by those who oppose speaking in tongues. In fact, many use Paul’s statement, “let there be only two or at most three,” not to limit tongues but to prohibit them entirely. Both these Scriptures must be considered in any discussion of tongues, but only in connection with Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 14:5: “Now I want you all to speak in tongues.” How do we reconcile “let there be only two or at most three” and “I want you all to speak”? Is Paul contradicting himself? No. The confusion is cleared away when we consider the two sets of circumstances in which speaking in tongues appears in the New Testament. They appear both as a sign and as a gift. They...